# iTutor Math Updates

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I was wondering about the integration of -1/sqrt(1-x^2) with respect to x.
The integral of 1/sqrt(1-x^2) is inverse sin(x)+c, but the integral of -1/sqrt(1-x^2) is inverse cos(x)+c. However, surely according to the rules of integrals you can write the integral of -1/sqrt(1-x^2) as -1*integral of 1/sqrt(1-x^2), i.e. -1*inverse sin(x)+c, which is obviously different from inverse cos(x)+c.
I was wondering how these two integrals of the same function are the same. Sorry if it's a stupid question.
Thanks.